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There's no question in that post, slick...

A bunch of rhetoric, and a confusion between measurement and cause.

You start out with the idea that measuring TIM was new. Of course, TIM shows up in a basic 1940's era SNR measurement just fine, as it shows up in a 1950's era THD measurement when done correctly, although it's not recognized as TIM. (Hint, y'all, try a 20kHz (or whatever maximum frequency y'all believe in) tone at maximum level into the dummy load, and see if you can't measure some distortion, now, ok?)

And since what I said was that one can measure the voltage and current, and by that I mean the TIME WAVEFORMS OF VOLTAGE AND CURRENT that are being applied to the loudspeaker, to a level better than the ear can resolve, y'all still haven't asked a germane question, unless y'all advocate that something more than electromagnetic energy drives the loudspeakers, eh?

No, if y'all think the flux of the aether of the pierced veil drives loudspeakers, well, I'm outta this one. If ya'll don't, then y'all only have to look at measurement equipment to see that we can measure that well.

Figurin' out what the measurements mean can be a *****, yeah, but you can most surely measure things better than y'all might imagine.

Oh, and by the way, what was the question?

And since when is frequency response a "scalar"?

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