In Reply to: I think we agreed more than you think posted by Commuteman on August 26, 2004 at 12:28:21:
"In other words, does a 1% change in one parameter have the same magnitude of effect as a 0.00001% change in another parameter."I don't know. How do you judge them if the effects are different? Does a 1% change in high freqeuncy rolloff equal a .00001% change in intermodulation distortion? Is having instruments having inaccurate musical timbre worse than them not being heard distinctly from each other? Are you trying to place relative values on these different kinds of distortion and equate one degree of badness in one with another degree of badness in another? Aren't these apples and oranges? If you can hear them, aren't both objectionable? If you can't, at least by my reckoning, it wouldn't matter? I'm not sure if it would in yours? How will you judge these changes? On a relative basis from one cable to another? On an absolute basis? If you reject my notion that cables can or should be compared to an absolute reference, how would you test them? How do you control just one variable at a time without inadvertantly changing everything else? Lots of questions? I'm still not sure I even understand the basic premise or thrust of this concept.
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Follow Ups
- Re: I think we agreed more than you think - Soundmind 12:44:00 08/26/04 (5)
- Ok, I've read this post a bunch of times.... - Commuteman 22:22:04 09/01/04 (0)
- Re: I think we agreed more than you think - john curl 16:23:15 08/26/04 (0)
- I can't help it, one more question.... :-) - Commuteman 13:57:58 08/26/04 (0)
- Well, I tried... - Commuteman 12:51:55 08/26/04 (1)
- Re: Well, I tried... - Soundmind 12:56:44 08/26/04 (0)