shouldn't the speed of sound be the same at all frequencies??I'm using a Behringer DCX2496 as a digital crossover in my home.
It appeared that I needed a mic preamp to use the Behringer's auto align. So, I started setting the delay by ear - knowing what my theoretical target was.
My horns are sitting on top of the subs - which puts the horn drivers roughly 19.5 inches behind the drivers in the subs. I'm calculating this from the dust covers of the cones. I'm crossing to the subs at 165 hz.
As I set the delay further and further, it seemed that the sound from the subs was slowly rising up to meet the center of the horns
When the sound from the subs seemed to be coming out of the center of the horns, I stopped - It sounds good so I plan to leave it there.
However, the delay is close to 10% longer than the distance settings in the Behringer, and 6 to 7% than my calculation using a method I found somewhere on the web.
I wondered why and figured you guys would know.
Thanks
Ken L.
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Topic - are delay settings frequency dependent?? - Triodeuser 15:40:05 08/08/03 (6)
- Re: are delay settings frequency dependent?? - tomservo 08:01:42 08/13/03 (3)
- Thanks Tom - appreciate the tip - nt - Triodeuser 12:38:11 08/19/03 (2)
- Re: Thanks Tom - appreciate the tip - nt - thesoundtek 19:41:50 08/20/03 (0)
- Re: Thanks Tom - appreciate the tip - nt - thesoundtek 19:40:39 08/20/03 (0)
- Re: are delay settings frequency dependent?? - Weogo 19:50:19 08/08/03 (1)
- I've got it now - Triodeuser 21:34:01 08/08/03 (0)