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You mean the two's compliment that flew over your head?


...which you used to *disprove* my case, or anyway thought you did.

Er, no. My mention of two's compliment had nothing to do with disproving your case or any other case. It was simply an answer to one of your questions.


And you related that (those?) to the polarity under discussion -- quite mistakenly, as I pointed out.

No, I did not. You're the one who's mistakenly relating things.

Let's follow your line of questioning.

I quoted Robert Harley where he said that the CD3400 inverted polarity.

You asked inverted from what?

I answered inverted with respect to the data on the disc, and made it quite clear that the polarity of the data on the disc is not necessarily representative of the absolute acoustic polarity.

You quoted my "data on the disc" and asked which polarity is correct?

I answered neither necessarily because as I stated originally, the polarity of the data on the disc is not necessarily representative of the absolute acoustic polarity.

You asked what defines the polarity of the data on the disc?

I answered two's compliment.

You asked huh?

I answered two's compliment again, and explained that this was used to encode bipolar signals, such as audio, in digital form. That basically, if the MSB is 0, the value represented is either positive or zero, and if the MSB is 1, the value represented is negative.

What seems to have completely escaped you is the fact that my comments with regard to two's compliment had only to do with the polarity of the data on the disc (that's what you asked specifically), which as I had said in my very first response had no particular relationship to absolute acoustic polarity.

Are you telling me that that allegedly formally educated, degreed mind of yours that Curl likes to brag about simply can't gasp such an obvious distinction? That while two's compliment defines the polarity of the data on the disc, that the polarity of the data on the disc has no inherent relationship to absolute acoustic polarity?

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